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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 01:07

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Has anyone been spanked by their parents after becoming an adult?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Do people of NYC drive around Central Park all the time? Is there any subway tunnel to cross the park quickly? Is it annoying for people and does it cause traffic?

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.